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Message - Re: Looking for some dialouge! Posted By
B.D. Phillips
on 7/19/2005 12:04:00 AM
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This is probably one of the most difficult if not the most difficult question of our time. Divorce & Remarriage with regard to those who were divorced for reason other than the only Scripturally acceptable reason, which is “porneia” in the Greek texts of origins (Matt. 5:32; 19:9; Mark 10:11-12; Luke 16:18). It means sexual misconduct or immorality of one, or even both parties, while within the bond of marriage.
It helps to carefully examine what Jesus said. Especially in Matthew 19:9
“And I say to you: whoever divorces his wife, except for sexual immorality, and marries another, commits adultery.” (Matt. 19:9; ESV)
Jesus was speaking to those Jews who had questioned Him regarding a question which was also a hot topic in that time. You might even compare the question to one which would be thrown at any leader in today’s time on topics like abortion or gay rights. For Jesus was viewed as a leader to some extent, or at least there was fear he would become a dominating political figure by those Jews in seats of authority.
There were two schools of thought on the subject in that time. Each side followed after a particular priest who had taken a position regarding divorce and what reasons were acceptable. One Priest was Shammai and he taught that divorce could only be acceptable for sexual immorality, which was drawn from Deuteronomy 24:1 regarding the statement “because he hath found some uncleanness in her”. The other was Hillel and he taught that a man could divorce his wife because “she found no favor in his eyes” (also from Deu. 24:1)
Now here is the twist to the belief of Hillel. He had divorced his aged wife to marry a younger woman. Thus it was in his favor to take the position which he did. But anyone with eyes and a brain could see and understand Hillel’s motivation. He was more interested in his own pleasure than what almighty had God commanded. Or else he would have taken note of what the prophet wrote…
“For the LORD, the God of Israel, saith that he hateth putting away: for one covereth violence with his garment, saith the LORD of hosts: therefore take heed to your spirit, that ye deal not treacherously.” (Mal 2:16; KJV)
Now with those things said I think we can see that many in this time are like unto Hillel and his following, wouldn’t you say? I mean they allow their physical relationship to become more important than their desire to please God and go to heaven. Now back to the original question. “If a person is not a Christian and they get divorced & remarried. Once that person has become a Christian, do they have to go back to the original spouse?”
What did Jesus say when He was talking to those non-Christians?
“And I say to you: whoever divorces his wife, except for sexual immorality, and marries another, commits adultery.” (Matt. 19:9; ESV)
Here is the question to now be answered… If a person was in an adulterous relationship and then obeyed the gospel to become a Christian should they return to what is still an adulterous relationship?
Paul answers that question in principle…
“God forbid. How shall we, that are dead to sin, live any longer therein?” (Rom. 6:2; KJV)
The writer of the Hebrew letter also addresses it in principle…
See to it that no one fails to obtain the grace of God; that no "root of bitterness" springs up and causes trouble, and by it many become defiled; that no one is sexually immoral or unholy like Esau, who sold his birthright for a single meal. (Heb 12:15-16; ESV)
Should a Christian sell their inheritance to satisfy a temporal urge? I would say NO!
Let us dwell on the command, example and inferences which can be seen in the New Testament, especially the words of Christ, for they shall be our judge (John 12:48)
“Jesus answered them, "Truly, truly, I say to you, everyone who commits sin is a slave to sin.” (John 8:34; ESV)
His servant and yours,
B.D. Phillips
* Two versions were used here, the King James Version and the Eng
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Re: Looking for some dialouge!
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Richard Thomas
7/22/2005 4:34:00 PM
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